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IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014 Computer Knowledge

Computer Knowledge

IBPS CWE Question Paper – 2014. These are previous year bank Question Papers, which you need to check out while preparing for your bank job recruitment.

1. Another name for a program is

(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware

Question 2. ……………. is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.

(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3

3. The two basic parts of URLs are

(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name

4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites

Question 5. The ……….. database is the most widely used database structur

(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by

(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list

7. POP denotes

(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer

8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?

(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000

Question 9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called

(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs

10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c

(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets

11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called

(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software

12. Using a ………… helps to place an image into a live video conference.

(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner

Question 13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called

(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs

14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)

(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell

15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called

(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations

Question 16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?

(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer

17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is

(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD

18. The radian of a number system

(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable

19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

Question 20. The most common method for gaining access to the internet is through a

(a) dumb terminal
(b) keyboard
(c) provider or host computer
(d) virtual provider provider or computer
(e) point-to-point computer

21. Which of the following is a format for storing and backing up computer data on tape that evolved from the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology?

(a) Audio interchange file format
(b) Digital data storage
(c) Virtual tape system
(d) Tape archive
(e) Data aggregation

22. A compiler means

(a) keypunch operator
(b) computer data collector
(c) a person who compiles source programs
(d) a program which translates source program into object program
(e) the same thing as a programmer

23. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called

(a) compilers
(b) action drivers
(c) interpreters
(d) device drivers
(e) operating systems

Question 24. ………. get transmitted across the web by harmful chain letters and hoaxes.

(a) Flames and infections
(b) Flames
(c) Wamings
(d) Viruses
(e) Infections

25. ATM machines run ………. OS.

(a) network
(b) web
(c) embedded
(d) disintegrated
(e) open source

26. Moving from one website to another is called

(a) jumping
(b) applying
(c) surfing
(d) moving
(e) shifting

27. In a client/server network, the user’s computer is considered the

(a) client
(b) website
(c) library
(d) server
(e) hoster

28. A program that is used to view websites is called a

(a) word processor
(b) spreadsheet
(c) browser
(d) web viewer
(e) viewer

29. The physical component of a computer that processes data in order to create information is called the

(a) specialware
(b) typology
(c) software
(d) hardware
(e) compiler

Question 30. An emerging trend is to free users from owning and storing applications by using

(a) word processing packages
(b) backup applications
(c) applications packages
(d) storage packages
(e) web-based applications

31. Which is a secondary memory device?

(a) Mouse
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Scanner
(d) CPU
(e) ALU

32. Which of the following is possible with open architecture?

(a) A minimum of six new devices to be added to a computer
(b) Hot swapping of devices.
(c) Users to upgrade and add new devices as they come on the market.
(d) All hardware, input and output devices to be located in one efficient box
(e) A minimum of four new devices to be added to a computer.

33. …………. are special visual and sound effects contained in presentation graphics file.

(a) Attractions
(b) Simulations
(c) Animatronics
(d) Graphics
(e) Animations

34. Step-by-step instructions that run the computer are

(a) CPUs
(b) Programs
(c) Solutions
(d) Hardware
(e) Documents

Question 35. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as

(a) processing
(b) algorithming
(c) coding
(d) file
(e) instrucitoning

36. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge

(a) Shock
(b) Anomaly
(c) Splash
(d) Spike
(e) Virus

37. Rules for exchaning data between computers are called

(a) procedures
(b) protocols
(c) hyperlinks
(d) programs
(e) hyper-actions

38. Which of the following is used to write webpages?

(a) URL
(b) HTML
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
(e) Telnet

39. ……….. is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

(a) Network client
(b) Desktop
(c) Network switch
(d) Network station
(e) Network server

Question 40. Raw, unprocessed facts, including text, numbers, images and sounds, are calle

(a) applets
(b) data
(c) melaware
(d) items
(e) java

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014 Quantitative Aptitude

Quantitative Aptitude

IBPS CWE Question Paper – 2014. These are previous year bank Question Papers, which you need to check out while preparing for your bank job recruitment.

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?

(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16

Question Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Note

· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100

Question 2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?

(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400

3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?


4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?

(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760

Question 5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?

(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

6. What is the ratio between profit earned by the businessman in 2003 and 2006 together and loss incurred by him in 2002 and 2005 together?

(a) 9 : 8
(b) 11 : 8
(c) 17 : 14
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 13 : 12

7. In a class, the average age of both male and female students together is 18 years. The total age of these 15 female students is 240. Definitely how many male students are there in the class?

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Data provided are inadequate to answer the question
(e) 25

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In the given questions, two equations are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

8.

I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Question 9.

I. 5x2 + 11x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 34y – 336 = 0

10.

I. 2x2  + 18x + 40 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0

11.

I. 6x2 – 29x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 – 11y + 10 = 0

Question 12.

I. x2 + x – 20 = 0
II. y2 – y – 30 = 0

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

13. 3600 1800 600 150 30 ?

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) 7.5

14. 33 16.5 ? 24.75 49.5 123.75

(a) 16.5
(b) 13.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 12.5

15. 20 23 30 43 64 ?

(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 95
(d) 99
(e) 88

16. 44 ? 99 148.5 222.75 334.125

(a) 72
(b) 77
(c) 66
(d) 54
(e) 84

Question 17. 2 4 10 ? 82 244

(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 34

Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Study the table and answer the given questions :

Data Related to Number of Employees in Six

Companies During 6 Years
IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

M = Male; F = Female

18. What is the difference between average number of male employees in all the given companies in 2006 and average number of female employees in all the given companies in 2009?

(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 58
(d) 52
(e) 74

19. Total number of female employees in company L in 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007 together is what percent more than the total number of female employees in company T in the same years together? (Rounded off to nearest integer)

(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 18
(d) 12
(e) 16

Question 20. In which of the given years is percentage increase in the number of male employees of company T from previous year the highest ?

(a) 2009
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2005
(e) 2006

21. Total number of female employees in company J during all the given years together is what percent of the total number of male employees in company I during all the given years together?

(a) 87
(b) 93
(c) 89
(d) 91
(e) 95

22. What is the respective ratio between total number of employees (male and female) in companies J, K and N together in 2006 and total number of employees (male and female) in the same companies together in 2007?

(a) 11 : 16
(b) 13 : 16
(c) 9 : 14
(d) 11 : 18
(e) 13 : 18

23. The numerical value of area of a rectangular field is 90 times the numerical value of its breadth. If the perimeter of field is 240 metres, what is the breadth of the field ?

(a) 60 m
(b) Data provided are not inadequate to answer the question
(c) 30 m
(d) 20 m
(e) 15 m

24. A’s monthly income is Rs. 10000 less than B’s monthly income. B’s monthly income is Rs. 15000 less than C’s monthly income. If the total monthly income of A, B and C together is Rs. 65000. What is A’s monthly income?

(a) Rs. 10000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) None of the answers given is correct
(e) Rs. 5000

Question 25. The total present ages of P and Q is 25 years more than the present age of R. If at present Q is 5 years older than R, what is P’s present age?

(in years)

(a) 20
(b) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(c) 40
(d) 35
(e) 30

26. The difference between the total simple interest and total compound interest compounded annually at the same rate of interest on a sum of money at the end of two years is Rs. 50. What is definitely the rate of interest percent per annum?

(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 5
(e) 7.5

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

27.

(a) 185
(b) 395
(c) 295
(d) 245
(e) 355

28.

(a) 88
(b) 44
(c) 72
(d) 50
(e) 64

Question 29. IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

(a) 525
(b) 455
(c) 645
(d) 395
(e) 275

30. 

(a) 32
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 12

31. 12.95 × 7.05 + 85.012 × 10.99 = ?

(a) 77586
(b) 77776
(c) 79566
(d) 78356
(e) 76876

32. One-fourth of two-fifth of 30% of a number is 15. What is 20% of that number?

(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 200
(e) 75

Question 33. The ratio between the base and height of a right angled triangle is 4 : 5, respectively. If the area of the right angled triangle is 80 sq cm, what is the height of the triangle?

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-38) Read the information given in the passage and answer the given questions:

There are 19000 students in College ‘P’. Each of them are studying either one or more of the given languages – Japanese,Korean and Latin. The respective ratio of male and female students is 9 : 11.

14% of the male students study only Japanese. 12% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 16% of the male students study only Japanese and Korean, 22% study only Korean and Latin and 8% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining male students study all the given languages.

22% of the female students study only Japanese, 18% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 12% of the female students study only Japanese and Korean, 16% study only Korean and Latin and 10% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining female students study all the given languages.

34. Number of male students who study more than one of the given languages is what percent more than the number of female students who study more than one of the given languages?

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Question 35. How many male students study Japanese?

(a) 3389
(b) 3572
(c) 3933
(d) 3782
(e) 3258

36. What is the respective ratio between number of male students who study Korean and number of female students who study the same?

(a) 58 : 59
(b) 57 : 88
(c) 87 : 88
(d) 63 : 64
(e) 61 : 62

37. What is the difference between number of female students who study Latin and number of male students who study the same?

(a) 43
(b) 76
(c) 83
(d) 62
(e) 57

38. Number of male students who do not study Korean is what percent of the number of female students in college P?

IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014

Question 39. The sum of two even numbers is 6 more than twice of the smaller number. If the difference between these two numbers is 6, what is definitely the smaller number?

(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 12
(e) 24

40. Sixteen men and twelve women together can complete a work in eight days. Twenty men can complete the same work in sixteen days. How many days will sixteen women take to complete the same work?

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 20
(e) 10

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014 English Language

English Language

IBPS CWE Question Paper – 2012. These are previous year bank Question Papers, which you need to check out while preparing for your bank job recruitment.

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

Question 1. Rich mineral resources and the government present willing to build infrastructure will attract plenty of foreign investment.

(a) government willingly present
(b) government presence is willing
(c) government is present but willing
(d) present government’s willingness
(e) No correction required

2. One of the city’s advantages including a good education system, attractive quality of life and a good transport system which can cope with its rising population.

(a) One of the city’s advantages include
(b) Some of the city’s advantages include
(c) The city has advantages included
(d) Many of the city’s advantages are included
(e) No correction required

3. Regulators in America have plans to increase the amount of capital that its eight largest banks can held and banks will have until 2018 to comply.

(a) increased the amount
(b) increase in the amount
(c) which increases the amount
(d) by increasing amounts
(e) No correction required

4. If we revise the school curriculum, colleges will not only get more quality of students but companies will also get skilled employees.

(a) most quality students
(b) good quality of the student
(c) students of best qualities
(d) better quality students
(e) No correction required

Question 5. By running small dairy farms and selling the milk to factories, the women of the village takes care the needs of their families.

(a) woman of the village caring for
(b) woman of a village will care
(c) women of the village take care of
(d) village women taking care of
(e) No correction required

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaning paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. So while these partnerships are at times messy and controversial, on balance, they are a force for good.

B. NGOs help compaines reach and meet the needs of parts of the market that companies do not understand, such as the marginalised, where NGOs have unique insight.

C. But before concluding that such partnerships are valueless it is worth recalling the reasons why they took off in the first place.

D. For NGOs too, partnerships with firms have their uses, with companies providing money and ways of influencing the mindandbehaviour of millions of people.

E. There are many opponents to the close ties between companies and charities (Non-governmental Organisations-NGOs).

F. NGOs are also better than companies at attracting and retaining idealistic talent, who sometimes end up even being absorbed by the companies to administer the policies they had advocated when they worked for NGOs.

6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Question 7. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

10. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, If any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)

11. Though the idea of high speed trains is/apprealingly, studies show that countries which/have such trains have found that they are much/more expensive than expected and are not used much.

(a) Though the idea of high speed trains is
(b) Appealingly, studies show that countries which
(c) have such trains have found that they are much
(d) more expensive than expected and are not used much
(e) No error

Question 12. Innovations especially into a the field of/information technology can help to increase/the wages of the workforce provided/workers have the necessary skills.

(a) Innovations especially into the field of
(b) Information technology can help to increase
(c) the wages of the workforce provided
(d) workers have the necessary skills
(e) No error

13. While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks/every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million it/is set to launch a rocket into space to/orbit Mars and gather data about the planet.

(a) While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks
(b) every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million at
(c) is set to launch a rocket into space to
(d) orbit Mars and gather data about the planet
(e) No error

14. The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which/consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance,/ a data centre which stores records and an interface/which provides insurance companies with informaton.

(a) The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which
(b) consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance
(c) a data centre which stores records and an interface
(d) which provides insurance companies with information
(e) No error

15. Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population/lives in villages and the most pressing/problem faces the country today/is the lack of rural reforms.

(a) Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population
(b) lives in villages and the most pressing
(c) problem faces the country today
(d) is the lack of rural reforms
(e) No error

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) These sentences have two blanks each indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words of the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question 16. Young people may be ……. the ability to read emotions, as digital devices such as smartphones are ………. their face-to-face social skills.

(a) faking, hiding
(b) affecting, stopping
(c) losing, limiting
(d) failing, hindering
(e) mastering, providing

17. ………. are the days when consumers were passive passengers with little of ………. choice over the design of the product.

(a) Went, less
(b) Past, much
(c) Gone, no
(d) Extinct, nil
(e) Lost, so

18. Researchers ………. that eating less meat would help in ………. water resources in dry areas around the world.

(a) opine, conserve
(b) said, procuring
(c) suggest, removing
(d) prove, store
(e) believe, preserving

19. The government is ……… on launching a system to strictly monitor …………. of industrial wastes.

(a) keen, treatment
(b) thinking, capturing
(c) contemplating, cure
(d) interested, disposal
(e) eager, healing

Question 20. Scientists, from across the country, have ……… emphasis on the need to take immediate steps to ………… the issue of climate change.

(a) placed, stop
(b) paid, halt
(c) given, hold
(d) laid, address
(e) put, clear

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in its emphasis, approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new dimension and perspectives as a consequence. Rural development can be richer and more meaningful only through the participation of clienteles of development. Just as implementation is the touchstone for planning people’s participationis the centre-piece in rural development.

People’s participation is one of the foremost pre-requisites of development process both from procedural and philsophical perspectives. For the development planners and administrators, it is important solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans participatory.

Rural Development aims at imporving rural people’s livelihoods in an equitable and sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access to assets and services, and control over productive capital.

The basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure, provision of training to rural unemployed youth and providing employment to marginal farmers/labourers to discourage seasonal and permanent migration to urban areas.

Rural Development is the main pillar of our nation’s development. In spite of rapid urbanisation, a large section of our population still lives in the villages. Secondly, rural India has lagged behind in development because of many historical factors.

Though, the 11th Plan began in very favourable circumstances with the economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year in the 10th Plan period, there still existed a big challenge to correct the development imbalances and to accord due priority to development in rural areas.

Ministry of Rural Development is implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic development in rurual areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all round economic and social transformation in rural areas, though in multi-pronged strategy, aiming to reach out to the most disadvantaged sections of the society. Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the government of India through several plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still remains much more to be done to bring propertiy in the lives of the people in rural areas.

At present, technology dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural areas. Good efforts of organisations developing technologies, devices and products for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher dissemination rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been catering to needs, rather than creating demand.

There is no industry linkage machinery to create demand based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there is also an imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes. Propagation of technolgy/schemes for rural development is slow and there is lack of wider participation of different stakeholders.

An ideal approach may therefore, include the government, panchayats, village personnel, researchers, industries NGOs and private companies to not only help in reducing this imbalance but also to have a multiplier effect on the overall economy.

Question 21. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural Development Programmes?

A. To promote urbanisation.
B. Provide training to youth.
C. Reducing unemployment.

(a) A and C
(b) Only C
(c) B and C
(d) All of these
(e) Only A

22. As per the passage, the basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and ………. through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure.

(a) dissemination
(b) unemployment
(c) attenuation
(d) infrastructure
(e) None of the above

23. According to the passage, experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher ……… rate.

(a) dissemination
(b) promulgation
(c) promotion
(d) circulation
(e) attenuation

24. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Propagation

(a) Dissemination
(b) Promulgation
(c) Promotion
(d) Circulation
(e) None of the above

25. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban areas.
B. The economic growth of the 10th five year plan did not translate into proportionate rural development.
C. The efforts of the government of India for poverty alleviation have been met with complete failure.

(a) A and B
(b) Only C
(c) A and C
(d) Only B
(e) All of the above

Question 26. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold used in the passage?
Touchstone

(a) Yardstick
(b) Periphery
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Weakners
(e) Hurdle

27. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology aided development in rural areas?

A. Creation of demand for technology aided development in rural areas is missing
B. There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology aided development
C. There is dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology aided development.

(a) Only C
(b) B and C
(c) Only A
(d) A and B
(e) All of these

28. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a) Technology in Rural India
(b) The Rural Indian Communities
(c) Rural Development-The Participative Way
(d) Rural India-Ignored by All the Stakeholders
(e) Rural Development-An impossible Dream

29. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Alleviation

(a) Reduction
(b) Attenuation
(c) Damp
(d) Diminish
(e) Assnage

Question 30. Which of the followingis most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?

Equitable

(a) Troubled
(b) Unfair
(c) Separated
(d) Futuristic
(e) Just

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Confidence in the global economy is (151) improving, as evidenced by the bullish behaviour of financial markets and by increasingly positive comments from companies and policy makers over the past few weeks.

While economists have generally argued in (152) of a robust recovery, both in the world economy and in financial markets, it is when investors get (153) bullish that the pessimistic case deserves more (154).

Many of them believe that the current improvement in global conditions is just a blip and that the world faces years, if not decades, of ‘secular stagnation’. How (155) should we take these foreboding statements?

The good news is that there is not much (156) of secular stagnation in global statistics. For the world economy as a whole, the ‘new normal’ since 2008 has not, infact, been very (157) from the pre-crisis period. The average growth of the global economy, from 1988 to 2007, was 3.6%, according to the IMF’s Economic Outlook database. Its latest forecast for this year is the same, 3.6%, although the IMF Managing Director hinted at a modest (158) this week.

At first sight, this continuity from the pre-crisis decades seems (159) to square with the slowdown in economic activity in all major economies since 2008. The IMF expects only 2.2% growth this year in developed countries compared with an average of 2.8% during the two decades before the crisis. In the emerging economies, meanwhile, growth is (160) at 4.8% this year, slightly below the 4.9% of the pre-crisis decades.

31. (a) heavily
(b) steadily
(c) tremendously
(d) highly
(e) regularly

Question 32. (a) approval
(b) favour
(c) account
(d) side
(e) grace

33. (a) together
(b) collective
(c) wild
(d) uniformly
(e) distributive

34. (a) weight
(b) meaning
(c) attraction
(d) notice
(e) attention

35. (a) easily
(b) seriously
(c) badly
(d) simply
(e) much

36. (a) evidence
(b) example
(c) sample
(d) clue
(e) information

37. (a) similar
(b) unlike
(c) distinctive
(d) different
(e) identical

38. (a) reduce
(b) crash
(c) subside
(d) flop
(e) decline

Question 39. (a) hard
(b) default
(c) difficulty
(d) hit
(e) roughly

40. (a) highlighted
(b) depicted
(c) projected
(d) progressed
(e) assumed

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014 General Awareness

General Awareness

IBPS CWE Question Paper – 2012. These are previous year bank Question Papers, which you need to check out while preparing for your bank job recruitment.

1. India’s largest 700 MW ultra mega solar power plant is planned in the State of Madhya Pradesh in

(a) Bhopal district
(b) Ujjain district
(c) Khandwa district
(d) Rewa district
(e) Indore district

2. India’s Tax Administration Reform Commission submitted its first report to Finance Minister in the June, 2014 and this Commission is headed by

(a) YV Reddy
(b) D. Subba Rao
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) Parthasarathy Shome
(e) Bimal Jalan

3. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as

(a) Economic Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Fiscal Policy
(d) Credit Policy
(e) Budgetary Policy

Question 4. Through the ‘Clean India’ campaign, the Union government has set a target to make country free from dysfunctional toilets by the year

(a) 2016 (b) 2017
(c) 2018 (d) 2019
(e) 2020

5. The Depositor Education & Awareness Fund (DEAF) has been set-up with

(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Indian Banks Association
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Government of India

6. Who amongst the following has recently been selected to receive the 2014 Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his outstanding contribution towards the promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill?

(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(c) Shyam Benegal
(d) Muzaffar Ali
(e) Illayaraja

(a) first of December every year
(b) last Monday of September
(c) last Sunday of November
(d) first of November every year
(e) first Sunday of October

8. The ‘Cabinet Committee on Investments’ has been set-up to

(a) scrutinise investment proposals
(b) attract overseas investors
(c) facilitate stalled projects
(d) market the policies of the government
(e) clear investment proposals expeditiously

9. The official currency of the ‘Republic of Austria’ is

(a) Euro
(b) Peso
(c) Austrian pound
(d) Lira
(e) Austrian dollar

10. The host of the Eighteenth (2014) SAARC summit is

(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
(e) Nepal

Question 11. The remote sensing satellite ‘Yaogan XX’ has recently been put in orbit by

(a) Australia
(b) Singapore
(c) China
(d) Thailand
(e) New Zealand

12. Nobel laureate and recipient of the US Presidential Medal and also the US Congressional Medal, Muhammed Yunus is well-known for his contribution to Bangladesh’s

(a) consumer credit sector
(b) agro credit sector
(c) housing finance sector
(d) micro credit sector
(e) retail credit sector

13. During FIFA World Cup 2014, which player has broke the record for leading goal scorer in the World Cup tournaments?

(a) Lionel Messi
(b) Philip Lahm
(c) Paul Pogba
(d) Miroslav Klose
(e) Cristiano Ronaldo

14. Which of the following is the official Capital of Sweden?

(a) Belfast
(b) Rome
(c) Berne
(d) Stockholm
(e) Montreal

15. In which of the following States, there is no Regional Rural Bank?

(a) Karnataka
(b) Goa
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Punjab
(e) Himachal Pradesh

Question 16. The abbreviation NTCA stands for

(a) National Thermal Control Authority
(b) National Terrorist Control Authority
(c) National Transportation Control Authority
(d) National Transport Corporation Authority
(e) National Tiger Conservation Authority

17. Gagan Narang is an Indian sportsman associated with

(a) Badminton
(b) Air rifle shooting
(c) Golf
(d) Wrestling
(e) Athletics

Question 18. As stated by Arun Jaitley in his Budget Speech for 2014-15, the amount provided for 2014-15 for the Welfare of SC under the ‘SC Plan’ is

(a) Rs. 50548 crore
(b) Rs. 54548 crore
(c) Rs. 32548 crore
(d) Rs. 32387 crore
(e) Rs. 50387 crore

19. Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan has recently set-up a special committee to suggest measures for further strengthening of the security or the Parliament. The committee is headed by former

(a) Rajasthan DGP Harish Chandra Meena
(b) Delhi Police Commissioner Neeraj Kumar
(c) Union Home Secretary RK Singh
(d) CBI Director Amar Pratap Singh
(e) Mumbai Police Commissioner Satya Pal Singh

20. James Bond, often referred by his code name, 007 is the fictional protagonist of a series of novels and short stories, first published in 1953. The character was originally created by journalist and author

(a) John Pearson
(b) Kingsley Amis
(c) lan Fleming
(d) Raymond Benson
(e) Johan Gardner

21. In India, the regulator of the commodity market is

(a) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
(b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(e) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

22. For his role in one of the biggest corporate frauds in the country, market regulator SEBI recently barred B. Ramalinga Raju, founder and former Chairman of Satyam Computer Services from the market for a period of

(a) 18 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 21 years
(e) 14 years

Question 23. As per Census 2011, the total population of India on March 1, 2011 was 1210.6 million. Of this, the urban population was

(a) 433.1 million
(b) 399.1 million
(c) 477.1 million
(d) 377.1 million
(e) 499.1 million

24. In order to promote financial inclusion, the Reserve Bank of India has recently allowed minors to operate bank accounts independently provided their age is above

(a) 14 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 10 years
(e) 8 years

25. Finance Minsiter Arun Jaitley recently announced launch of ‘Van Bandhu Kalyan Yojana’ for the welfare of

(a) Tribal Communities
(b) Economically Weaker Sections
(c) Minority Communities
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Rural and Village Communities

26. The recent WTO talks failed to agree on TFA or Global Customs Rules. Expand the term TFA.

(a) Trade Fostering Agreement
(b) Trade Factoring Agreement
(c) Trade Facilitation Agreement
(d) Trade Featuring Agreement
(e) Other than those given as options

27. The Cabinet Minister for Road Transport, Highways and Shipping in the Union Cabinet is

(a) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
(b) D. Sadananda Gowda
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Rajnath Singh
(e) M. Venkaiah Naidu

Question 28. The process of conversion of a physical cheque into electronic form is known as

(a) Cheque Negotiation
(b) Cheque Endorsement
(c) Cheque Truncation
(d) Cheque Alteration
(e) Cheque Crossing

29. The earlier system of Prime Lending Rate (PLR) has now been replaced by

(a) Reverse Repo Rate System
(b) Repo Rate System
(c) Exchange Rate System
(d) Bank Rate System
(e) Base Rate System

30. The Tata Sons – Singapore Airlines joint venture, which is expected to launch operations by October, has recently unveiled the brand namd of its new airline as

(a) Visage
(b) Vishal
(c) Vistara
(d) Vishwas
(e) Vistas

31. Which of the following Indian compaines recently crossed the Rs. 5 lakh crore mark in market cpitalisation to become the second most valuable IT services company in the world?

(a) HCL Technologies
(b) Wipro
(c) Tech Mahindra
(d) Tata Consultancy Services
(e) Infosys

32. As many as three Asiatic lions, brought from Gir Forest of Gujarat 57 years ago, which led to a population of 11 in last count in 1965, have vanished from the

(a) Kaziranga National Park in Asom
(b) Bandipur National Park in Karnataka
(c) Chandraprabha Wildlife Sanctuary near Varanasi
(d) Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh
(e) Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand

Question 33. The Arjuna Awards selection committee for choosing outstanding sportspersons of the country for the year 2014 was headed by former Indian cricket captain

(a) Sourav Ganguly
(b) Sunil Gavaskar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Azharuddin
(e) Kapil Dev

34. In his budget (2014-15) speech Finance Minister had announced setting of a Commission to look into various aspects of expenditure reforms. Accordingly an Expenditure Management Commission has recently been set-up. The Commission is headed by

(a) Subir Gokarn
(b) YV Reddy
(c) D. Subbarao
(d) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(e) Sumit Bose

35. A banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces, is known as

(a) a mutilated banknote
(b) a counterfeit banknote
(c) a soiled banknote
(d) a damaged banknote
(e) a defective banknote

36. As per Article-104 of the Constitution, the seat is considered vacant, if a member is absent from either House of Parliament for a period of

(a) 30 days
(b) 91 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 120 days

37. The author of the book ‘Strictly Personal, Manmohan and Gursharan’ recently published by Harper Collins is

(a) Natwar Singh
(b) PC Parekh
(c) Gursharan Kaur
(d) Sanjaya Baru
(e) Daman Singh

Question 38. The national capital of Brazil is

(a) Quito
(b) Santiago
(c) Salvador
(d) Brasilia
(e) Bogota

39. The scientist, who co-discovered the deadly ‘Ebola’ strain in 1976, is

(a) Peter Piot
(b) Butel Janet
(c) Paul Farrell
(d) Michel Heffernan
(e) Grahm David

40. In his Budget (2014-15) speech, Minister of Railways DV Sadananda Gowda has informed that the number of unmanned Level Crossings is around

(a) 11563
(b) 21348
(c) 21563
(d) 30348
(e) 11348

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IBPS-RRBs Officer Question Paper Scale-I 2014 Reasoning

Reasoning

IBPS CWE Question Paper – 2012. These are previous year bank Question Papers, which you need to check out while preparing for your bank job recruitment.

Based on Memory

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. Among friends M, N, O, P, Q and R, who is the second heaviest?

I. O is heavier than only two friends. P is heavier than Q but lighter than N. R is the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than only two friends. N is heavier than O but lighter than R. P is heavier than only Q.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 2. Among six people E, F, G, H, I, J standing around a circle facing the centre, what is the position of G with respect to F?

I. E stands second to the right of G. Only one person stands between E and I. F is an immediate neighbour of G.
II. Only two people sit between G and H. H is an immediate neighbour of both I and E. F is not an immediate neighbour of I.

(a) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the qusetion.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the qustion.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the quesiton.

3. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for his vacation?

I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for his vacation in the first half of the year.
II. Rahul’s friend correctly remembers that he went for his vacation after 31st March and before 1st May.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 4. How many marks has Suman scoredd in a test having 20 maximum marks.

I. Suman scored two-digit even marks in the test.
II. Suman scored more than 14 but less than 18 marks in the test.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?

I. P is taller than Q, T is not the tallest.
II. R is taller than P, S is not the tallest.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 6. What is the age of Rakesh in a group of four members?

I. Rakesh, Vimal and Sandeep are all of same age.
II. Total age of Vimal, Kunal and Sandeep is 32 years and Kunal is as old as Vimal and Sandeep together.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-10) Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.
Each of the six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U has a different weight. R is heavier than T but lighter than U. Q is lighter only than P. T is not the lightest. T weighs 50 kg. The one who is the third heaviest weighs 63 kg.

7. Who is the third lightest?

(a) Q
(b) U
(c) R
(d) T
(e) P

8. Whose weight could possibly be 49 kg?

(a) S
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) R
(e) U

9. Which of the following weights correctly represents possible weight of R?

(a) 65 kg
(b) 48 kg
(c) 67 kg
(d) 61 kg
(e) 63 kg

Question 10. Which of the following could possibly be the weight of Q?

(a) 65 kg
(b) 60 kg
(c) 62 kg
(d) 58 kg
(e) 55 kg

11. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :
As more and more NRIs invest in property in city A, more than 100000 flats are lying vacant even as a large number of people struggle to get good accommodation in the city.

Which of the following statements represents the best possible COURSE OF ACTION in order to deal with the situation?

(a) A vacancy tax should be introduced in order to compel the owners to at least rent out the property.
(b) Purchase of property should not be allowed unless it is used for self-residential purpose.
(c) No NRI should be allowed to invest in property anywhere in India in order to protect the interests of the residents.
(d) Residents of city A should be advised to reside in neighbouring cities where the population density is comparatively lower.
(e) Property prices should be decreased considerably by the government in order to allow everyone to buy as many properties as possible.

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SCHEDULE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) Three
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) One
(e) Two

Question 13. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :
It has been recently reported that the country’s low-cost domestic airline recently lost as many as 40 commanders or senior pilots mainly to Gulf airlines in the last one year. “Gulf airlines, have hired many pilots in big numbers in recent months and most of the senior pilots have opted for these airlines as they have been unhappy with the domestic airline for quite some time.” Source said.

Which of the following statements represents an appropriate COURSE OF ACTION to be taken by the airline in order to curtail this problem?

(a) The airline should increase the salary of all the employees and increment of the employees should be as per their grade.
(b) The airline should examine the reason for the high rate of attrition among senior employees and should focus on dealing with the concerns of the employees.
(c) The airline should recruit only those pilots who are willing to sign a bond of 5 years.
(d) The airline should improve their recruitment policies and should test the loyalty and integrity of the employees before they decide to hire them.
(e) The airline should focus on recruiting younger pilots and providing them with good training rather than focusing on retaining senior pilots.

14. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?

AN CQ ET GW ?

(a) HZ
(b) GY
(c) IZ
(d) HY
(e) IX

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-19) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Question 15. Statements

P < L £ A >
M = K ³ E

Conclusions

I. K £ L
II. P < E

(a) Only Conclusion II is true.
(b) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(c) Both Conclusion I and II are true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion I is tr

16. Statements

P > R = A < Y;
D < A

Conclusions

I. P > D
II. D < Y

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only Conclusion I is true.
(c) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion II is true.

17. Statements

P > R = A < Y;
D < A

Conclusions

I. P < Y
II. R £ D

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Neither Conclusions I nor II is true.
(c) Only Conclusion I is true.
(d) Only Conclusion II is true.
(e) Either Conclusion I or II is true.

Question 18. Statements

C ³ R > A = S £ H
R < P < Q

Conclusions

I. C > S
II. P < C

(a) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Only Conclusion II is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion I is true.

19. Statements

C ³ R > A = S < H
R < P < Q

Conclusions

I. H ³ R
II. R < Q

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only Conclusion II is true.
(c) Only Conclusion I is true.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Question Directions (Q. Nos. 20-24) Study the following information to answer the questions :
In a certain code,

rural and urban divide is written as ‘na ku zu la’,

gap in rural infrastructure is written as ‘kt la vm pi’

urban planning more important is written as ‘ti na cu bu’,

more divide than gap is written as ‘pi cu dm zu’.

(All codes are two letter codes only)

20. What is the code for ‘and’ in the given code language?

(a) ku
(b) zu
(c) dm
(d) la
(e) na

21. Which of the following may represent ‘important theory planning’ in the given code language?

(a) la bu ti
(b) ti bu kt
(c) bu pi ti
(d) bu xt ti
(e) gm ti vm

22. Which of the following represents ‘more rural’ in the given code language?

(a) cu pi
(b) vm la
(c) la cu
(d) cu ti
(e) la ku

23. What does the code ‘dm’ stand for in the given code language?

(a) Either ‘gap’ or ‘more’
(b) than
(c) divide
(d) more
(e) gap

Question 24. What is the code for ‘infrastructure’ in the given code language?

(a) zu
(b) na
(c) Either ‘kt’ or ‘vm’
(d) ta
(e) pi

25. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘NOEC’ using all the letters, but, each letter only once in each word?

(a) Three
(b) None
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) More than three

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In these questions, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decidewhich of the given conclusions logically follows form the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Question 26. Statements

All railways are trains. No train is a station. Some stations are platforms.

Conclusions

I. All railways being platforms is a possibility.
II. No railway is a station.

(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Both Conclusion I and II follows.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(e) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

27. Statements

All erasers are sharpeners. All sharpeners are pencils. Some pencils are pens.

Conclusions

I. No eraser is a pen.
II. All pencils are sharpeners.

(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Question 28. Statements

All winters are summers. Some summers are springs. No spring is an autumn.

Conclusions

I. At least some winters are springs.
II. Some autumns being summers is a possibility.

(a) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Both Conclusion I and II follow.
(c) Only Conclusion I follows
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) Only Conclusion II follows.

29. Statements

All erasers are sharpeners. All sharpeners are pencils. Some pencils are pens.

Conclusions

I. At least some sharpeners are pens.
II. No sharpener is a pen.

(a) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) Only Conclusion I follows.
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

30. Statements

All winters are summers. Some summers are springs. No spring is an autumn.

Conclusions

I. All summers can never be autumns.
II. At least some summers are winters.

(a) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Both conclusion I and II follow.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) Only conclusion I follows.
(e) Only conclusion II follows.

Question Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the information and answer the given questions :

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of a 7-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of these is travelling to a different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Patna, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Lucknow but not necessarily in the same order.

Only three people live above the floors o which P lives. Only one person lives between P and the one travelling to Bengaluru. U lives immediately below the one travelling to Mumbai. The one travelling to Mumbai lives on an even numbered floor. Only three people live between the ones travelling to Bengaluru and Patna.

T lives immediately above R. T is not ravelling to Patna. Only two people live between Q and the one travelling to Kolkata. The one travelling to Kolkata lives below the floor on which Q lives.

The one travelling to Delhi does note live immediately above or immediately below Q. S does not live immeidately above or immediately below P. V does not travel to Chennai.

31. Which of the following is true with respect to V as per the given information?

(a) The one who lives immediately below V is travelling to Mumbai.
(b) V lives on floor number 7.
(c) V lives immediately below T.
(d) V lives on the lowermost floor.
(e) V is travelling to Bengaluru.

32. Who among the following lives of floor number 3?

(a) The one travelling to Chennai.
(b) The one travelling to Kolkata.
(c) R
(d) V
(e) T

Question 33. Who lives on the floor immediately above T?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) V
(e) U

34. To which of the following cities is S travelling?

(a) Mumbai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Patna
(d) Kolkata
(e) Chennai

35. How many people live between the floors on which S and the one travelling to Mumbai live?

(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) More than three
(e) Three

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the information and answer the given questions :

Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting around a circular table (with equal distances between each other) facing the centre, but not necessarily in same order.

D sits second to the right of F. Only two people sit between D and C. H is an immediate neighbour of E. Neither H nor E is an immediate neighbour of C or D. Only two people sit between A and E. G sits third to the right of A. B sits second to the left of C. Only one person sits between C and E.

Question 36. Who amongst the following sits exactly between A and I, when counted from the left side of A?

(a) F
(b) H
(c) D
(d) E
(e) C

37. If E and B interchange their places and so do A and C, then who will sit exactly between A and E?

(a) F
(b) G
(c) B
(d) C
(e) I

38. Four among the given five pairs are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement, and thus form a group. Which amongst the following pairs does not belong to the group?

(a) B, A
(b) I, E
(c) A, D
(d) G, C
(e) H, F

39. Who sits second to the right of G?

(a) I
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) F

Question 40. According to the given arrangement, which of the following people sits between A and B?

(a) I
(b) B
(c) D
(d) G
(e) H

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